[Sep 29, 2024] Fully Updated ISC Certification (CSSLP) Certification Sample Questions [Q18-Q33] : Free Exams Dumps Materials : http://exams.dumpsmaterials.com

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[Sep 29, 2024] Fully Updated ISC Certification (CSSLP) Certification Sample Questions [Q18-Q33]

[Sep 29, 2024] Fully Updated ISC Certification (CSSLP) Certification Sample Questions

Latest ISC CSSLP Real Exam Dumps PDF

Who should take the exam

if you have the following prerequisite and required skills then you should take this exam for getting Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP) certificate.

3 years of cumulative paid full-time SDLC professional work experience in 1 or more of the 8 domains of the CSSLP CBK
4-year degree leading to a Baccalaureate, or regional equivalent in Computer Science, Information Technology (IT) or related fields.
Minimum of 4 years of cumulative paid full-time Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) professional work experience in 1 or more of the 8 domains of the (ISC)2 CSSLP CBK

QUESTION 18
Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.

Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.

Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.

Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.

QUESTION 19
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

Phase 2

Phase 4

Phase 3

Phase 1

QUESTION 20
The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles

Assume environment data is not trustworthy

Simplify the design

Principle of least privilege

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is an example of penetration testing?

Implementing NIDS on a network

Implementing HIDS on a computer

Simulating an actual attack on a network

Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity?

RTO

RTA

RPO

RCO

The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster or disruption in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the problem without a recovery, the recovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time for user representative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with an incident management timeline and may start at the same, or different, points. In accepted business continuity planning methodology, the RTO is established during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a process (usually in conjunction with the Business Continuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance. The RTO attaches to the business process and not the resources required to support the process. Answer B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Actual (RTA) is established during an exercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology the technology support team develops. This is the time frame the technology support takes to deliver the recovered infrastructure to the business. Answer D is incorrect. The Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) is used in Business Continuity Planning in addition to Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data consistency objectives to Continuous Data Protection services. Answer C is incorrect. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be recovered as defined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an organization determines is an “acceptable loss” in a disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2 hours and the time it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2 hours. Based on this RPO the data must be restored to within 2 hours of the disaster.

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known, but by which a business can obtain an economic advantage over its competitors?

Utility model

Trade secret

Explanation:
A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information.

QUESTION 24
You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to save all the data from the SQL injection attack, which can read sensitive data from the database and modify database data using some commands, such as Insert, Update, and Delete. Which of the following tasks will you perform? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Apply maximum number of database permissions.

Use an encapsulated library for accessing databases.

Create parameterized stored procedures.

Create parameterized queries by using bound and typed parameters.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following SDLC phases consists of the given security controls: Misuse Case Modeling Security Design and Architecture Review Threat and Risk Modeling Security Requirements and Test Cases Generation?

Deployment

Requirements Gathering

Maintenance

Design

QUESTION 26
Harry is the project manager of the MMQ Construction Project. In this project, Harry has identified a supplier who can create stained glass windows for 1,000 window units in the construction project. The supplier is an artist who works by himself, but creates windows for several companies throughout the United States. Management reviews the proposal to use this supplier and while they agree that the supplier is talented, they do not think the artist can fulfill the 1,000 window units in time for the project’s deadline. Management asked Harry to find a supplier who can fulfill the completion of the windows by the needed date in the schedule. What risk response has management asked Harry to implement?

Transference

Avoidance

Mitigation

Acceptance

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: This is an example of mitigation. By changing to a more reliable supplier, Harry is reducing the probability the supplier will be late. It’s still possible that the vendor may not be able to deliver the stained glass windows, but the more reputable supplier reduces the probability of the lateness. Mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with threats that seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk to below an acceptable threshold. Risk mitigation involves taking early action to reduce the probability and impact of a risk occurring on the project. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions.
AnswerA is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee. While
this question does include a contractual relationship, the risk is the lateness of the windows. Transference focuses on transferring the risk to a third party to manage the risk event. In this instance, the management of the risk is owned by a third party; the third party actually creates the risk event because of the possibility of the lateness of the windows. AnswerB is incorrect. Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk. If the project manager and management changed the window-type to a standard window in the project requirements, then this would be avoidance. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. AnswerD is incorrect. Acceptance accepts the risk that the windows could be late and offers no response.

QUESTION 27
The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.

The level of risk tolerance.

The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system- related security risks.

The RMF primarily operates at Tier 1.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

NIST Special Publication 800-60

NIST Special Publication 800-53

NIST Special Publication 800-37A

NIST Special Publication 800-59

NIST Special Publication 800-37

NIST Special Publication 800-53A

QUESTION 29
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Security operations

Maintenance of the SSAA

Compliance validation

Change management

System operations

Continue to review and refine the SSAA

QUESTION 30
Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

File and object access

Data downloading from the Internet

Printer access

Network logons and logoffs

QUESTION 31
Security is a state of well-being of information and infrastructures in which the possibilities of successful yet undetected theft, tampering, and/or disruption of information and services are kept low or tolerable. Which of the following are the elements of security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Integrity

Authenticity

Confidentiality

Availability

QUESTION 32
Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Biba model

Clark-Biba model

Clark-Wilson model

Bell-LaPadula model

QUESTION 33
Which of the following acts is used to recognize the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States?

Computer Misuse Act

Lanham Act

Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

FISMA

The Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 is a United States federal law enacted in 2002 as Title III of the E-Government Act of 2002. The act recognized the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States. The act requires each federal agency to develop, document, and implement an agency-wide program to provide information security for the information and information systems that support the operations and assets of the agency, including those provided or managed by another agency, contractor, or other source. FISMA has brought attention within the federal government to cybersecurity and explicitly emphasized a ‘risk-based policy for cost-effective security’. FISMA requires agency program officials, chief information officers, and Inspectors Generals (IGs) to conduct annual reviews of the agency’s information security program and report the results to Office of Management and Budget (OMB). OMB uses this data to assist in its oversight responsibilities and to prepare this annual report to Congress on agency compliance with the act. Answer B is incorrect. The Lanham Act is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. It is also called Lanham Trademark Act. Answer A is incorrect. The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement: Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine “not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale” (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with the intent to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences. Answer C is incorrect. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act is a law passed by the United States Congress in 1984 intended to reduce cracking of computer systems and to address federal computer-related offenses. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (codified as 18 U.S.C. 1030) governs cases with a compelling federal interest, where computers of the federal government or certain financial institutions are involved, where the crime itself is interstate in nature, or computers used in interstate and foreign commerce. It was amended in 1986, 1994, 1996, in 2001 by the USA PATRIOT Act, and in 2008 by the Identity Theft Enforcement and Restitution Act. Section (b) of the act punishes anyone who not just commits or attempts to commit an offense under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act but also those who conspire to do so.

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