Dumps of CTFL_Syll_4.0 Cover all the requirements of the Real Exam [Q198-Q217]

August 8, 2026August 8, 2026 examdumpsDumps of CTFL_Syll_4.0 Cover all the requirements of the Real Exam [Q198-Q217] 0 Comment

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Dumps of CTFL_Syll_4.0 Cover all the requirements of the Real Exam

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ISQI CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Test Analysis and Design	30%	– Collaboration-based approaches – White-box test techniques – Test techniques overview – Black-box test techniques – Experience-based test techniques
Fundamentals of Testing	20%	– Why testing is necessary – What is testing – Essential skills and good practices – Testing principles – Test activities, testware and roles
Static Testing	10%	– Review process and types – Static testing basics
Test Tools and Automation	2.5%	– Tool support for testing – Benefits and risks of automation
Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle	15%	– Testing in SDLC contexts – Maintenance testing – Test levels – Test types
Managing Test Activities	22.5%	– Risk-based testing – Monitoring, control and completion – Test planning – Defect management – Configuration management

NEW QUESTION 198
Which of the following statements is true?

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics. Non- functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 40.

NEW QUESTION 199
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than
40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS
exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€.The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between
80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. References:
ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1

NEW QUESTION 200
Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Be able to apply test-driven development

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Explanation
Test-driven development is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing, but rather an example of a specific technical skill or a development practice that may or may not be relevant for testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing activities. Test-driven development is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers write automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests pass. Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of the code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven development is not a skill that is generally expected or needed for testers, especially for testers who are not involved in unit testing or who do not have access to the source code. The other options are examples of typical generic skills required for testing, which are skills that are applicable and beneficial for testing in any context or situation,regardless of the specific testing techniques, tools, or methods used. The typical generic skills required for testing include:
Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools: These are tools that help testers to plan, organize, monitor, and control the testing activities and resources, as well as to record, track, analyze, and resolve the defects detected during testing. These tools can improve the efficiency, the effectiveness, and the communication of the testing process, as well as to provide traceability, metrics, and reports for the testing outcomes.
Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible: This is a skill that involves the ability to report and describe the defects and failures found during testing in a clear, concise, accurate, and unbiased manner, using relevant information, evidence, and terminology, without making assumptions, judgments, or accusations. This skill can facilitate the collaboration, the understanding, and the resolution of the defects and failures between the testers and the developers, as well as to prevent conflicts, misunderstandings, or blame games.
Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork: These are skills that involve the ability to interact, cooperate, and coordinate with other people involved in or affected by the testing activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the customers, the users, etc. These skills can include communication, negotiation, leadership, motivation, feedback, conflict resolution, etc. These skills can enhance the quality, the productivity, and the satisfaction of the testing process, as well as to foster a positive and constructive testing culture. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software Development Lifecycle ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test-driven Development, Test Management Tool, Defect Tracking Tool, Defect Report, Failure, Social Skill2

NEW QUESTION 201
Which ONE of the following options is aPRODUCT riskand NOT aPROJECT risk?

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

Product risksare risks thatimpact the quality or functionality of the software, whereasproject risksaffect theprocess, resources, or timeline.
* (A) is correctbecause incorrect calculations impact software correctness.
* (B), (C), and (D) are project risksas they relate toteam coordination, staffing, and schedulingrather than software defects.
Identifyingproduct risksearlyimproves defect detection and ensures better coverage for high-risk areas.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.2.2 – Product and Project Risks

NEW QUESTION 202
Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

Exhaustive testing (testing all input combinations) is practically impossible except in trivial cases (C). Instead, testers focus on risk-based, prioritized, and efficient test techniques. The seven principles of testing in the ISTQB syllabus highlight that exhaustive testing is infeasible, and therefore, techniques such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, and risk-based testing are used to optimize test coverage.

NEW QUESTION 203
In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users’ expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Tests wear out

Absence-of-errors fallacy

Working software over comprehensive documentation

Defects cluster together

The absence-of-errors fallacy is one of the seven testing principles mentioned in the ISTQB syllabus. This principle states that even if no defects are found in the software, it does not guarantee that the software is usable and meets the user needs and expectations. By involving users early in the development process through practices like prototyping, the team can gather feedback to ensure that the software aligns with user expectations, thereby addressing the risk of this fallacy.

NEW QUESTION 204
Which role is responsible for ensuring the effective running of review meetings?

Review leader

Facilitator

Scribe

Manager

The review leader is responsible for planning, organizing, and ensuring the effective running of review meetings.

NEW QUESTION 205
Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

It is the quadrant that component testing.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

The business-facing quadrant that supports the team is focused on tests that validate the system against user stories. These tests ensure that the system delivers the value and functionality described by the user stories, which are central to agile methodologies.

NEW QUESTION 206
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

Test plans

Source code

Compiled code

Formal models

Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
ISTQBCertified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.2.1, page 20; ISTQBGlossary v4.
02, page 45.

NEW QUESTION 207
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292

NEW QUESTION 208
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Can’t be determined

Covering all transitions at least once

Covering only start and end states

Covering all states at least once

Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions.
Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section
4.2.3, page 49-50.

NEW QUESTION 209
Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

Performing static testing on a commercially available executable library can raise legal issues, primarily related to the ownership and licensing of the software. These libraries are often proprietary, and analyzing them without permission may violate software licenses or intellectual property laws. Static testing typically involves analyzing source code, which may not be accessible for such libraries without appropriate permissions.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.2 on legal and ethical considerations in static testing.

NEW QUESTION 210
Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:
Work Product:
1. Risk register
2. Risk informaton
3. Test cases
4. Test conditons
Category of work products:
A . Test planning work products
B . Test analysis work products.
C . Test design work products
D . Test monitoring and control work products

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

1-B. 2-D. 3-A, 4-C

Risk register is a test planning work product as it documents identified risks and their mitigation strategies.
Risk information falls under test monitoring and control work products as it involves ongoing evaluation and reporting of risks.
Test cases are part of test design work products as they are derived from test conditions and designed to execute the testing scenarios.
Test conditions belong to test analysis work products as they define the items or events of a system that are to be tested.

NEW QUESTION 211
Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

This answer is correct because identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review is one of the tasks the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review. The Author is the person who creates the work product to be reviewed, such as a requirement specification, a design document, or a test case. The Author’s tasks include preparing the work product for the review, identifying potential anomalies in the work product, and fixing the anomalies found in the work product after the review.

NEW QUESTION 212
Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:
A company”The Big Drop”providesbulk discounts and frequent customer discountsas follows:

How manypossible decision rulescan be extracted from this table?

5 decision rules

6 decision rules

32 decision rules

8 decision rules

Decision rules define possiblecombinations of conditions and outcomes.
For this scenario:
* Bulk discount has 3 categories(0%, 5%, 10%)
* Frequent customer discount has 2 categories(Yes = +5%, No = 0%)
The total number of decision rules is:
3 bulk discount options × 2 frequent customer options = 6 rules.
Thus, the correct answer is6 decision rules (B).
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3 – Decision Table Testing

NEW QUESTION 213
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Test monitoring and control

Test implementation

Test design

Test analysis

This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3

NEW QUESTION 214
A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team

use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient

determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

One of the generic skills required for the role of a tester is the ability to use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient. This includes using various test automation tools to streamline the testing process, reduce manual effort, and improve the consistency and accuracy of test results. Testers should be proficient in leveraging these tools to enhance productivity and ensure comprehensive test coverage.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 1.5.1, page 20: General Skills Required for Testing

NEW QUESTION 215
An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test.
While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed.
Which of the following statements is true?

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

The slowdown is an error the memory leak is a defect

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error

The slowdown is a defect the memory leak is a failure

In the ISTQB terminology:
* A defect (also known as a bug or fault) is an issue in the code that can cause a failure.
* A failure is the observable incorrect behavior or output of the software due to a defect.
In this scenario, the memory leak is the defect in the application code that causes the application not to release dynamically allocated memory properly. The observable effect of this defect, which is the slowdown in response time, is considered a failure because it is the manifestation of the defect that prevents the application from meeting its performance requirements.

NEW QUESTION 216
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

Confirmation testingis performed after a defect is fixed to confirm it no longer exists (A).Regression testing ensures new defects have not been introduced in unchanged parts of the system. Regression testing is broader than confirmation testing and covers unmodified areas affected by the changes. Options B, C, and D misrepresent the relationship and scope of these tests.

NEW QUESTION 217
Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

This answer is correct because configuration management is a process of establishing and maintaining consistency of a product’s performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation. This supports testing by providing traceability, consistency, and control over the test artifacts and the software under test.

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